Background and Purpose— The best time for administering anticoagulation therapy in acute cardioembolic stroke remains unclear. This prospective cohort study of patients with acute stroke and atrial fibrillation, evaluated (1) the risk of recurrent ischemic event and severe bleeding; (2) the risk factors for recurrence and bleeding; and (3) the risks of recurrence and bleeding associated with anticoagulant therapy and its starting time after the acute stroke. Methods— The primary outcome of this multicenter study was the composite of stroke, transient ischemic attack, symptomatic systemic embolism, symptomatic cerebral bleeding and major extracranial bleeding within 90 days from acute stroke. Results— Of the 1029 patients enrolled, 123 had 128 events (12.6%): 77 (7.6%) ischemic stroke or transient ischemic attack or systemic embolism, 37 (3.6%) symptomatic cerebral bleeding, and 14 (1.4%) major extracranial bleeding. At 90 days, 50% of the patients were either deceased or disabled (modified Rankin score ≥3), and 10.9% were deceased. High CHA 2 DS 2 -VASc score, high National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale, large ischemic lesion and type of anticoagulant were predictive factors for primary study outcome. At adjusted Cox regression analysis, initiating anticoagulants 4 to 14 days from stroke onset was associated with a significant reduction in primary study outcome, compared with initiating treatment before 4 or after 14 days: hazard ratio 0.53 (95% confidence interval 0.30–0.93). About 7% of the patients treated with oral anticoagulants alone had an outcome event compared with 16.8% and 12.3% of the patients treated with low molecular weight heparins alone or followed by oral anticoagulants, respectively ( P =0.003). Conclusions— Acute stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is associated with high rates of ischemic recurrence and major bleeding at 90 days. This study has observed that high CHA 2 DS 2 -VASc score, high National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale, large ischemic lesions, and type of anticoagulant administered each independently led to a greater risk of recurrence and bleedings. Also, data showed that the best time for initiating anticoagulation treatment for secondary stroke prevention is 4 to 14 days from stroke onset. Moreover, patients treated with oral anticoagulants alone had better outcomes compared with patients treated with low molecular weight heparins alone or before oral anticoagulants.

Current research in Parkinson's disease (PD) focuses on symptomatic therapy and neuroprotective interventions. Drugs that have been used for symptomatic therapy are levodopa, usually combined with a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor, synthetic dopamine receptor agonists, centrally-acting antimuscarinic drugs, amantadine, monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitors and catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors. Drugs for which there is at least some evidence for neuroprotective effect are certain dopamine agonists, amantadine and MAO-B inhibitors (selegiline). Levodopa remains the most effective drug for the treatment of PD. Several factors contribute to the complex clinical pharmacokinetics of levodopa: erratic absorption, short half-life, peripheral O-methylation and facilitated transport across the blood-brain barrier. In patients with response fluctuations to levodopa, the concentration-effect curve becomes steeper and shifts to the right compared with patients with stable response. Pharmacokinetic-pharmacodynamic modelling can affect decisions regarding therapeutic strategies. The dopamine agonists include ergot derivatives (bromocriptine, pergolide, lisuride and cabergoline), non-ergoline derivatives (pramipexole, ropinirole and piribedil) and apomorphine. Most dopamine agonists have their specific pharmacological profile. They are used in monotherapy and as an adjunct to levodopa in early and advanced PD. Few pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic data are available regarding centrally acting antimuscarinic drugs. They are characterised by rapid absorption after oral intake, large volume of distribution and low clearance relative to hepatic blood flow, with extensive metabolism. The mechanism of action of amantadine remains elusive. It is well absorbed and widely distributed. Since elimination is primarily by renal clearance, accumulation of the drug can occur in patients with renal dysfunction and dosage reduction must be envisaged. The COMT inhibitors entacapone and tolcapone dose-dependently inhibit the formation of the major metabolite of levodopa, 3-O-methyldopa, and improve the bioavailability and reduce the clearance of levodopa without significantly affecting its absorption. They are useful adjuncts to levodopa in patients with end-of-dose fluctuations. The MAO-B inhibitor selegiline may have a dual effect: reducing the catabolism of dopamine and limiting the formation of neurotoxic free radicals. The pharmacokinetics of selegiline are highly variable; it has low bioavailability and large volume of distribution. The oral clearance is many-fold higher than the hepatic blood flow and the drug is extensively metabolised into several metabolites, some of them being active. Despite the introduction of several new drugs to the antiparkinsonian armamentarium, no single best treatment exists for an individual patient with PD. Particularly in the advanced stage of the disease, treatment should be individually tailored.

The results of this prospective epidemiological study show that headache is highly prevalent among medical students at this university. The high prevalence rate of migraine sufferers in this student population might be due to the high female-to-male ratio (1.7:1). It is likely that analgesic use/overuse also coexists with headache in medical students at Sultan Qaboos University, since a large majority of them rely on nonprescription medications.

Objective: To assess the knowledge of stroke in the general public in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries. Background: The Arabian Gulf is a rapidly developing part of the world with major changes in the lifestyle that can increase the risk of stroke. To design effective stroke treatment and prevention strategies, an assessment of the public knowledge of stroke is required. Methods: A cross-sectional community-based survey was conducted at primary health care centers (PHCs), in urban and semi-urban areas, of the GCC countries (Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Bahrain, the United Arab Emirates, Oman) on the level of stroke awareness in the general public. Health care workers completed 3,750 face-to-face interviews. Results: 1,089 (29.0%) were familiar with the term ‘stroke’, and 29.3% considered the age group 30–50 at the highest risk for stroke. The commonest risk factors identified were hypertension (23.1%) and smoking (27.3%). People who did not know the term stroke had a higher incidence of diabetes, hypertension, and had more than one risk factor (p < 0.05). The most frequently identified stroke symptoms were weakness (23%) and speech problems (21.7%). Of those who recognized stroke, blockage of blood vessels was identified as the commonest cause of stroke (22%) followed by tension/worrying (20%). Doctors and nurses were regarded as the best source of stroke information (70%). In the univariate comparison, younger age (p < 0.001), higher level of education (p < 0.001), and female gender (p = 0.008) better predicted stroke recognition. In a multivariate logistic regression analysis, the level of education, monthly income and smoking were independent variables predicting stroke knowledge. Conclusion: The majority of the patients had not even heard the term stroke. Stroke knowledge was poorest among the groups that were at the highest risk for stroke. Stroke education has to focus on the high-risk groups, particularly the younger population. The health care workers at the PHCs and hospitals will need instructions on providing stroke information to the public. The level of knowledge of stroke risk factors and symptoms emphasizes the need for stroke education efforts in the community.

Compared to studies performed in urban hospitals in other countries, (1) the annual rate of poisoning-related Accident & Emergency Department visits was substantially lower, (2) psychoactive drugs were less frequently incriminated in intentional ingestions, and (3) we found a significantly higher frequency of poisoning by animals and traditional remedies than reported by urban hospitals in other Middle Eastern countries. The limitations of our study (Accident & Emergency Department-based data collection in an urban hospital) do not permit extrapolation to the rest of the country.

CCM and OCT detect significant corneal and retinal nerve degeneration which relates to the severity of neurological deficits in patients with mild MS.

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Vancomycin can cause two types of hypersensitivity reactions, the red man syndrome and anaphylaxis. Red man syndrome has often been associated with rapid infusion of the first dose of the drug and was initially attributed to impurities found in vancomycin preparations. Even after improvement in vancomycin's purity, however, reports of the syndrome persist. Other antibiotics (e.g. ciprofloxacin, amphotericin B, rifampicin and teicoplanin) or other drugs that stimulate histamine release can result in red man syndrome. Discontinuation of the vancomycin infusion and administration of diphenhydramine can abort most of the reactions. Slow intravenous administration of vancomycin should minimize the risk of infusion-related adverse effects.