Here is a familiar scenario. There was a duel at dawn. Duelist A was faster and shot first; B fell to the ground. As things turned out, the shot was fatal, which makes A a killer. So: (1) Data: A shot B at dawn. In fact, A killed B. Question: Is A's shooting of B the same event as A's killing of B? Philosophers have conflicting intuitions about how to respond. Some are inclined to answer the question in the negative, at least under plausible circumstances. For example, suppose B made it until dusk before succumbing to their bullet wound. Then, before dusk B was still alive, which would suggest that B had not yet been killed. But B had already been shot. So really the shooting and the killing would appear to have different properties and ought to be distinguished by Leibniz's law. Other philosophers feel otherwise. They are inclined to say that the events in question are one and the same-that A performed only one action at dawn-though our linguistic resources are such that we can describe what happened by means of descriptions or action sentences that do not all have the same semantic properties. If indeed B died at dusk, then before dusk we could only report what happened by saying that there was a shooting, not a killing. (Or: before dusk we could truthfully say that A shot B, not that A killed B.) But this would not mean that we are dealing with two events. It would simply mean that what happened at dawn-the shooting-could not be called a killing until dusk, just like A-the shooter-could not be referred to as a killer until then. 1 How do we choose between these two views? Of course, if we assume that a killing must always extend until the death of the victim, and if B only died at dusk, the puzzle has a straightforward solution: A's shooting and A's killing of B must be distinct (though we may still wonder whether one is part of the other). But suppose B's death was instantaneous, so that the temporal factor plays no role. Shall we still insist on the shooting and the killing being distinct events on account of their having different modal properties? (It might have been the case that B only died at dusk. Or it might have been the case that the shot did not result in the death of B at all, whereas a killing must perforce be fatal.) Shall we insist instead on their being the same event in spite of there being significant modal differences in the statements and descriptions by which we can talk about what happened? A plausible thought is that puzzles such as these can be settled by a robust linguistic theory, a theory displaying the logical forms of the statements that fix the data-and of the event-referring | 219 VARZI descriptions emerging from those statements-so as to account for the relevant logical implications. Consider, for instance, the following two scenarios, both of which are also familiar from the literature on event identity. (2) Data: Someone, A, is singing; they're singing loudly. Question: Is A's singing the same event as A's singing loudly? (3) Data: A metal ball, B, is spinning fast and slowly...