“…As (y, ̺ 2 ) ∼ (x 1 , ̺ 1 ), we have (x 1 , ̺ 1 ) ∼ (x 2 , ̺ 2 ) if and only if (y, ̺ 2 ) ∼ (x 2 , ̺ 2 ), which by Lemma 3.5 is equivalent to y ∼ x 2 . This can be checked in polynomial time using Gaussian elimination, then solving a system of linear congruence equations (see also [8,Proposition 8]).…”